Were Lot’s daughters married? In verse 8 they are referred to as virgins. But in verse 14 in the KJV, Lot speaks to his “sons-in-law, which married his daughters”. I checked two modern translations; the NLT says Lot spoke to “his daughters’ fiancés” and the NIV refers to these men as “his sons-in-law, who were pledged to marry his daughters” and then adds a footnote which says “or were married to”. So which is it? and why? Were the modern translations changed because of the contradiction between verse 8 and 14 in the KJV?
The story of Lot’s daughters comes with a content warning. I thought the bible was supposed to be family reading (biblical family values). Guess they don’t teach this story in Sunday school.
And what about cruelty? Yahweh kills everyone in 19:24 with fire and brimstone. Babies? Yup.
Some familiar injustices in here – lying (v 2) and incest (v 12) are OK if it’s god breaking the rules, but banned for everyone else. And punishment for the sins of others (v 18) is OK, too.
Here is another celebration of ‘family values’, as little Ishmael is cast into the wilderness by his father. As far as I’m concerned, the bible has already struck out as model for morality.